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???
12/26/03 05:34
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#61407 - RE: Random number from 1 to 8
Responding to: ???'s previous message
Hallo Mahmood,

I'm not sure, whether I understood you correctly. But if you want to fabricate random numbers '1', '2', '3', ... , '8', then you should divide rand() by 32,768, not 32,767. Why?
Because with your formula you will get random number '8' only, when rand() = 32,767. This would not deliver numbers '1' to '8' with equal probability. Number of occurances of '8' would be much smaller than that of the other numbers.

I would use the following formula: Divide rand() by 32,768, multiply by eight, add one and take the integer, means neglect everything behind the decimal point.

Or, a bit simpler: Divide rand() by 4096, add one and take the integer.

Bye,
Kai

List of 39 messages in thread
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Random number from 1 to 8            01/01/70 00:00      
   P.S            01/01/70 00:00      
   RE: Random number from 1 to 8            01/01/70 00:00      
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               RE: Random number from 1 to 8            01/01/70 00:00      
               RE: Random number from 1 to 8            01/01/70 00:00      
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                     RE: Random number from 1 to 8            01/01/70 00:00      
                  RE: Random number from 1 to 8            01/01/70 00:00      
   Prime polynomials over GFn            01/01/70 00:00      
   ways to get the pseudo out            01/01/70 00:00      
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               RE: ways to get the pseudo out            01/01/70 00:00      
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                     RE: ways to get the pseudo out            01/01/70 00:00      
                        RE: ways to get the pseudo out            01/01/70 00:00      
                           RE: ways to get the pseudo out            01/01/70 00:00      
   RE: Random number from 1 to 8            01/01/70 00:00      

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